MAHARASHTRA STATE ELIGIBILITY TEST (MH-SET)
Paper I (Booklet Code: A) — Detailed Solutions & Explanations
Exam Date: 7th April 2024 | Based on the Official Final Answer Key
Q1. If taught on memory level of teaching, the students get tremendous power for acquisition of: (i) factual information, (ii) generalized insight, (iii) problem solving abilities
Correct Answer: (B) Only (i)
Explanation: Memory level teaching (Herbartian model) focuses strictly on rote memorization, recall, and retention of factual information. Generalized insight is characteristic of the understanding level (Morrison), while problem-solving belongs to the reflective level (Hunt).
Q2. The teacher should choose teaching method considering: (i) Nature of the learners, (ii) Nature of the objectives to be realized, (iii) The teacher's own ability and proficiency
Correct Answer: (C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explanation: Effective pedagogical planning requires a triangular alignment between learner characteristics (age, prior knowledge), instructional objectives (cognitive, affective, psychomotor domains), and the educator's competence to execute the chosen method.
Q3. What is the main characteristic of gifted students?
Correct Answer: (D) They are independent in their judgement
Explanation: Gifted learners exhibit high self-efficacy, internal locus of control, autonomous thinking, and independence in evaluating ideas and making critical judgments.
Q4. For adult learners, instruction needs to focus:
Correct Answer: (C) more on the process and less on the content to be taught
Explanation: According to Malcolm Knowles' principles of Andragogy (adult learning theory), adults are self-directed and problem-centered; instruction must prioritize experiential, problem-solving processes rather than mere transmission of static content.
Q5. _____ evaluation gives a clear idea about understanding of the student regarding particular content.
Correct Answer: (C) Diagnostic
Explanation: Diagnostic evaluation pinpoint specific learning gaps, misconceptions, and areas of conceptual weakness in particular content areas to plan corrective/remedial action.
Q6. _____ is the characteristic of qualitative research.
Correct Answer: (C) In-depth exploration of meanings and experiences
Explanation: Qualitative research relies on interpretative, naturalistic approaches to explore how individuals perceive, experience, and give meaning to social phenomena.
Q7. _____ is a limitation of positivism in research.
Correct Answer: (B) It tends to oversimplify complex social phenomenon
Explanation: Positivism applies strict natural science methods and reductionist quantifiable measures to human society, which frequently oversimplifies multi-layered, nuanced human behavior and social context.
Q8. _____ is referred as "citation" in academic writing.
Correct Answer: (B) A way of giving proper credit to the original source of information
Explanation: A citation is a formal reference within academic text that acknowledges and credits the original authors/creators whose ideas, data, or words have been utilized.
Q9. _____ type of research misconduct involves making up or falsifying data.
Correct Answer: (B) Fabrication
Explanation: In scientific research integrity standards (FFP: Fabrication, Falsification, Plagiarism), "Fabrication" is defined specifically as the intentional making up of data or results and recording or reporting them.
Q10. _____ ICT tool is essential for creating and managing bibliographies in research papers.
Correct Answer: (B) Reference management software
Explanation: Reference management tools (such as Zotero, Mendeley, and EndNote) are built specifically to collect citations, organize references, and automatically format in-text citations and bibliographies.
Q11. The given passage states that Mahatma Gandhi largely succeeded in:
Correct Answer: (C) moulding the millions in India
Explanation: Direct line from paragraph 1: "Through nation-wide action, he sought to mould the millions and largely succeeded in doing so."
Q12. What do you understand by the phrase "to be rid of"?
Correct Answer: (A) Released/freed from something
Explanation: "To get rid of" or "to be rid of" means to be freed, liberated, or relieved from an unwanted burden or condition.
Q13. What did Mahatma Gandhi represent?
Correct Answer: (D) The spirit and honour of India
Explanation: Stated directly in paragraph 2: "To us, he represented the spirit and honour of India, the yearning of her sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens."
Q14. The main contribution of Gandhi to India has been:
Correct Answer: (B) the powerful movements
Explanation: Directly quoted in paragraph 1: "The main contribution of Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has been through the powerful movements that he launched through the National Congress."
Q15. What, do you think, is the correct meaning of the term "bourgeois"?
Correct Answer: (C) Middle class with conventional, conservative and materialistic values
Explanation: Historically and sociologically, the term "bourgeois" refers to the propertied middle class upholding conventional socio-economic norms.
Q16. Which of the following messages is less likely to be misunderstood or misinterpreted due to cultural or linguistic background of the receivers of the message:
Correct Answer: (g) [All options (A, B, C, D) are accepted / full marks awarded]
Explanation: Language barriers, dialects, cultural gestures, and icon symbolism vary widely across diverse demographics. Because every communication mode carries inherent susceptibility to cultural ambiguity, the examination authority marked this item as key code 'g' (awarding credit for all options).
Q17. In the context of contemporary digital parlance what are the following symbols collectively called as: :-) :-( ;-) :-x
Correct Answer: (B) Emoticons
Explanation: Representations composed of standard typographic punctuation marks (like
:-) or ;-)) are called emoticons (emotion + icon). True emojis are pictographic Unicode images (like 😊, 😢).Q18. In the context of non-verbal communication identify the incorrect statement:
Correct Answer: (B) Non-verbal cues and messages are easy to control
Explanation: Non-verbal cues (such as pupil dilation, micro-expressions, involuntary sweating, blushing, and vocal tremor) are largely spontaneous and subconscious, making them difficult to control. Thus, (B) is factually incorrect.
Q19. What is Prasar Bharati?
Correct Answer: (D) It is India's state owned Public Broadcaster
Explanation: Established under the Prasar Bharati Act (1990), Prasar Bharati is India's statutory, autonomous public service broadcaster, comprising Doordarshan (DD) and All India Radio (Akashvani).
Q20. Which of the following elements is facilitated much more in a communicative situation wherein teacher and students are sitting together in a circular manner facing each other?
Correct Answer: (D) level of interactions between the students
Explanation: A circular seating arrangement eliminates front-to-back hierarchy, maximizes direct eye contact, and fosters multi-directional, peer-to-peer classroom discussions and collaboration.
Q21. What is the arithmetic mean of the integers from 1 to 51?
Correct Answer: (C) 26
Calculation: For an arithmetic progression of consecutive integers from 1 to n, the arithmetic mean is (1 + n) / 2 = (1 + 51) / 2 = 52 / 2 = 26.
Q22. If 10m (m is positive integer) divides the product of the integers from 101 to 151, then the maximum value of m is:
Correct Answer: (B) 13
Calculation: Since 10 = 2 × 5, and factors of 2 are abundant, the highest power of 10 equals the exponent of prime factor 5 in the product from 101 to 151.
Multiples of 5 contribute:
• Multiples of 5: 105, 110, 115, 120, 125, 130, 135, 140, 145, 150 (10 multiples)
• Additional factors from multiples of 25: 125 (5³), 150 (5² × 6) contribute 2 + 1 = 3 extra factors of 5.
Total factors of 5 = 10 + 3 = 13. Thus, maximum m = 13.
Multiples of 5 contribute:
• Multiples of 5: 105, 110, 115, 120, 125, 130, 135, 140, 145, 150 (10 multiples)
• Additional factors from multiples of 25: 125 (5³), 150 (5² × 6) contribute 2 + 1 = 3 extra factors of 5.
Total factors of 5 = 10 + 3 = 13. Thus, maximum m = 13.
Q23. Among the three numbers, X = 188181811881, Y = 881181811818 and Z = 811881188118, which numbers are divisible by 18?
Correct Answer: (B) Y and Z only
Explanation: To be divisible by 18, a number must be divisible by both 2 (even last digit) and 9 (sum of digits divisible by 9):
• X ends in 1 (odd number), so it is not divisible by 2 or 18.
• Y ends in 8 (even). Digit sum = (6 × 8) + (6 × 1) = 54 (divisible by 9). Hence Y is divisible by 18.
• Z ends in 8 (even). Digit sum = (6 × 8) + (6 × 1) = 54 (divisible by 9). Hence Z is divisible by 18.
• X ends in 1 (odd number), so it is not divisible by 2 or 18.
• Y ends in 8 (even). Digit sum = (6 × 8) + (6 × 1) = 54 (divisible by 9). Hence Y is divisible by 18.
• Z ends in 8 (even). Digit sum = (6 × 8) + (6 × 1) = 54 (divisible by 9). Hence Z is divisible by 18.
Q24. A person was working to transfer bricks from a place X to a place Y, where the distance between X and Y is 200 meters. At a time the person was carrying 15 bricks. Starting from the place X, after travelling 5.5 km while working, how many bricks were shifted to the place Y by the person?
Correct Answer: (C) 210
Calculation: Total distance covered = 5.5 km = 5500 meters.
• Each full round trip (carry bricks X → Y and return empty Y → X) = 200 m + 200 m = 400 m, delivering 15 bricks.
• In 13 complete round trips: Distance = 13 × 400 = 5200 meters; Bricks delivered = 13 × 15 = 195 bricks.
• Remaining distance to travel = 5500 - 5200 = 300 meters.
• The worker makes a 14th trip from X → Y (200 meters), successfully delivering 15 more bricks at Y (Total bricks = 195 + 15 = 210; total distance reaches 5400 meters).
• The last 100 meters is walked on the return trip towards X. Total delivered at Y = 210 bricks.
• Each full round trip (carry bricks X → Y and return empty Y → X) = 200 m + 200 m = 400 m, delivering 15 bricks.
• In 13 complete round trips: Distance = 13 × 400 = 5200 meters; Bricks delivered = 13 × 15 = 195 bricks.
• Remaining distance to travel = 5500 - 5200 = 300 meters.
• The worker makes a 14th trip from X → Y (200 meters), successfully delivering 15 more bricks at Y (Total bricks = 195 + 15 = 210; total distance reaches 5400 meters).
• The last 100 meters is walked on the return trip towards X. Total delivered at Y = 210 bricks.
Q25. There are 64 deer in a forest in the present year. If x(n) denotes the number of deer in the forest in year n and that x(n) = (3/2)x(n-1) for n = 1, 2, 3, ..., how many deer are there in 5th year in the forest?
Correct Answer: (B) 486
Calculation: Base year x(0) = 64.
Year 1: x(1) = 64 × (3/2) = 96
Year 2: x(2) = 96 × (3/2) = 144
Year 3: x(3) = 144 × (3/2) = 216
Year 4: x(4) = 216 × (3/2) = 324
Year 5: x(5) = 324 × (3/2) = 486.
Equivalently: 64 × (3/2)⁵ = 64 × (243 / 32) = 2 × 243 = 486.
Year 1: x(1) = 64 × (3/2) = 96
Year 2: x(2) = 96 × (3/2) = 144
Year 3: x(3) = 144 × (3/2) = 216
Year 4: x(4) = 216 × (3/2) = 324
Year 5: x(5) = 324 × (3/2) = 486.
Equivalently: 64 × (3/2)⁵ = 64 × (243 / 32) = 2 × 243 = 486.
Q26. Statement I: Some tigers are goats. Statement II: All political leaders are intelligent. Conclusion 1: Some goats are not tigers. Conclusion 2: Some political leaders are intelligent.
Correct Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: In classical logic, from "Some A are B" (I proposition), we cannot validly infer that "Some B are not A" (O proposition). Hence Conclusion 1 is invalid. From "All A are B" (A proposition), subalternation validly yields "Some A are B" (I proposition). Hence Conclusion 2 is valid.
Q27. Some buses are standing facing the bus stand. Thane bus was ahead of Nasik bus, which was ahead of Jalgaon bus. Amravati bus was behind Dhule bus, but ahead of Thane bus. Which is the second last bus from behind?
Correct Answer: (C) Nasik
Explanation: Let's arrange them from front to back:
• "Thane was ahead of Nasik, which was ahead of Jalgaon" → Thane > Nasik > Jalgaon
• "Amravati was behind Dhule, but ahead of Thane" → Dhule > Amravati > Thane
• Combined line from front to back: Dhule → Amravati → Thane → Nasik → Jalgaon.
Looking from the back: The last bus is Jalgaon; the second last bus from behind is Nasik.
• "Thane was ahead of Nasik, which was ahead of Jalgaon" → Thane > Nasik > Jalgaon
• "Amravati was behind Dhule, but ahead of Thane" → Dhule > Amravati > Thane
• Combined line from front to back: Dhule → Amravati → Thane → Nasik → Jalgaon.
Looking from the back: The last bus is Jalgaon; the second last bus from behind is Nasik.
Q28. In a code language if JKLM is coded as OSVX, then how DEFG will be coded in the same language?
Correct Answer: (D) IMPR
Calculation: Observe the alphabetical position shifts from JKLM (10, 11, 12, 13) to OSVX (15, 19, 22, 24):
J (10) + 5 = O (15)
K (11) + 8 = S (19)
L (12) + 10 = V (22)
M (13) + 11 = X (24)
Apply the exact same shifts (+5, +8, +10, +11) to DEFG (4, 5, 6, 7):
D (4) + 5 = I (9)
E (5) + 8 = M (13)
F (6) + 10 = P (16)
G (7) + 11 = R (18) → IMPR.
J (10) + 5 = O (15)
K (11) + 8 = S (19)
L (12) + 10 = V (22)
M (13) + 11 = X (24)
Apply the exact same shifts (+5, +8, +10, +11) to DEFG (4, 5, 6, 7):
D (4) + 5 = I (9)
E (5) + 8 = M (13)
F (6) + 10 = P (16)
G (7) + 11 = R (18) → IMPR.
Q29. In a code language if DAC means 635, then what will be the code for FEG?
Correct Answer: (A) 879
Calculation: Alphabet position + 2:
D (4) + 2 = 6, A (1) + 2 = 3, C (3) + 2 = 5 → 635.
Applying to FEG:
F (6) + 2 = 8
E (5) + 2 = 7
G (7) + 2 = 9 → 879.
D (4) + 2 = 6, A (1) + 2 = 3, C (3) + 2 = 5 → 635.
Applying to FEG:
F (6) + 2 = 8
E (5) + 2 = 7
G (7) + 2 = 9 → 879.
Q30. While facing south, Virat walks 15 meters and then turns to his right and walks 10 meters. From there he turns to his right and walks 15 meters. Then he turns to his left and walks 15 meters. Which direction is he facing now and how much away from the starting point?
Correct Answer: (B) West, 25 meters
Calculation:
1. Walks 15 m South: (0, -15)
2. Turns right (facing West) and walks 10 m: (-10, -15)
3. Turns right (facing North) and walks 15 m: (-10, 0)
4. Turns left (facing West) and walks 15 m: (-25, 0).
He is currently facing West and is exactly 25 meters away from the start.
1. Walks 15 m South: (0, -15)
2. Turns right (facing West) and walks 10 m: (-10, -15)
3. Turns right (facing North) and walks 15 m: (-10, 0)
4. Turns left (facing West) and walks 15 m: (-25, 0).
He is currently facing West and is exactly 25 meters away from the start.
Q31. What is percentage of total number of tourists visiting Agra? (Total tourists: Agra 15.0, Delhi 20.0, Chennai 10.0, Udaipur 6.0, Bangalore 6.0, Shrinagar 3.0 lakhs)
Correct Answer: (B) 25.00%
Calculation: Sum of tourists across all destinations = 15.0 + 20.0 + 10.0 + 6.0 + 6.0 + 3.0 = 60.0 lakhs.
Percentage visiting Agra = (15.0 / 60.0) × 100 = 25.00%.
Percentage visiting Agra = (15.0 / 60.0) × 100 = 25.00%.
Q32. Which type of tourists found maximum at Delhi? (American 8.2, English 8.7, French 2.7, Other 0.4 lakhs)
Correct Answer: (B) English
Explanation: In the Delhi row: English tourists are 8.7 lakhs, which is greater than American (8.2), French (2.7), and Other (0.4).
Q33. Itemwise expenditure: Labour 25%, Cement and Bricks 30%, Steel 15%, Timber and Glass 20%, Miscellaneous 10%. What will be the angle of the sector representing item labour in a Pie diagram?
Correct Answer: (C) 90°
Calculation: A full circle is 360°. Sector angle for Labour = 25% of 360° = (25 / 100) × 360° = 90°.
Q34. What is the ratio of expenditure of the item cement and bricks to the total expenditure of construction of house?
Correct Answer: (D) 3:10
Calculation: Cement and Bricks = 30%; Total expenditure = 100%.
Ratio = 30 : 100 = 3 : 10.
Ratio = 30 : 100 = 3 : 10.
Q35. The points (1, 60), (2, 30), (3, 20), (4, 15), (5, 12) are plotted on X-Y plane and joined by a smooth curve. What will be the nature of curve?
Correct Answer: (C) Hyperbola
Explanation: Looking at the products for all coordinate pairs:
1 × 60 = 60
2 × 30 = 60
3 × 20 = 60
4 × 15 = 60
5 × 12 = 60
The relation is xy = 60 (or y = 60/x), which is the standard algebraic equation of a rectangular hyperbola.
1 × 60 = 60
2 × 30 = 60
3 × 20 = 60
4 × 15 = 60
5 × 12 = 60
The relation is xy = 60 (or y = 60/x), which is the standard algebraic equation of a rectangular hyperbola.
Q36. Identify the correct pair from the following:
Correct Answer: (C) Kbps - unit of data transfer rate
Explanation: Kbps (kilobits per second) measures network/data transmission rate. Pxl (pixels) measures display resolution, HDD stands for Hard Disk Drive, and GHz measures CPU clock frequency.
Q37. When you access a site with 'https' instead of 'http' in the address bar, it primarily means:
Correct Answer: (B) You are accessing a secure communication
Explanation: HTTPS (HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure) encrypts communication between the client's browser and the server using SSL/TLS protocols to ensure confidentiality and data integrity.
Q38. Which of the following shows the correct chronological order of the first launch of these internet based facilities?
Correct Answer: (D) Wikipedia, Gmail, YouTube, Instagram
Timeline:
• Wikipedia: January 2001
• Gmail: April 2004
• YouTube: February 2005
• Instagram: October 2010
• Wikipedia: January 2001
• Gmail: April 2004
• YouTube: February 2005
• Instagram: October 2010
Q39. Which of the following has not been appointed as a national coordinator for SWAYAM to ensure the quality of the course content?
Correct Answer: (A) Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
Explanation: The 9 official National Coordinators for SWAYAM are AICTE, NPTEL, UGC, CEC, NCERT, NIOS, IGNOU, IIMB, and NITTTR. IISc Bangalore is not designated as an independent national coordinator.
Q40. In the context of 'Web 2.0' digital environment what does the abbreviation UGC stand for?
Correct Answer: (B) User Generated Content
Explanation: In modern internet technology and digital media, UGC stands for "User Generated Content" — content created and published directly by platform users (posts, wikis, videos, discussions).
Q41. When were Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) adopted by the United Nations?
Correct Answer: (C) 2000
Explanation: The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were adopted at the UN Millennium Summit in September 2000, establishing 8 global targets to be achieved by 2015.
Q42. What is the target year for achieving the Sustainable Development Goals?
Correct Answer: (C) 2030
Explanation: The 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were established in 2015 under the United Nations' "2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development" with a target completion date of 2030.
Q43. Which of the following is the effect of photochemical smog?
Correct Answer: (A) Headaches, eyes, nose and throat irritation
Explanation: Photochemical smog contains tropospheric ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN), and nitrogen oxides, which act as powerful oxidants causing respiratory discomfort, headache, and severe irritation to the eyes, nose, and mucous membranes.
Q44. What is the term for the process of inoculating microbes into soil?
Correct Answer: (C) Bioaugmentation
Explanation: Bioaugmentation is the intentional introduction (inoculation) of specific cultured microorganisms into contaminated soil or groundwater to accelerate the biodegradation of pollutants.
Q45. Which component of a solar panel is responsible for directly generating electric current when exposed to sunlight?
Correct Answer: (B) Semiconductor material
Explanation: Photovoltaic cells are manufactured from semiconductor materials (most commonly silicon) that absorb photon energy and directly free electrons via the photovoltaic effect to generate electric current.
Q46. Environmental Education is not just awareness and knowledge, but it is also development of:
Correct Answer: (C) Proper attitude
Explanation: In accordance with the 1977 UNESCO Tbilisi Declaration, environmental education seeks to build awareness, knowledge, attitudes (concern for the environment), skills, and participation.
Q47. Indian education system generally is divided into following periods:
Correct Answer: (A) Vedic period, Buddhist period, Muslim period, British period, Post-Independence period
Explanation: Standard historiography of Indian education categorizes its historical development chronologically into: Vedic period → Buddhist period → Medieval/Muslim period → British/Colonial period → Post-Independence era.
Q48. In correspondence education system the following things are included:
Correct Answer: (D) Guiding instructions, solved answers and occasional lectures
Explanation: Distance and correspondence education combines self-learning print instructional materials (SIM), study guides, model solutions/assignments, and periodic contact programs / occasional counseling lectures.
Q49. The First Open University was started in 1969 at:
Correct Answer: (B) Milton Kenis [Milton Keynes] in England
Explanation: The Open University (UK), recognized as the world's first open university, was established by Royal Charter in 1969 and is headquartered in Milton Keynes, England.
Q50. According to Muslim System of Education, 'Madarsa' is supposed to be the centre of:
Correct Answer: (C) Higher Education
Explanation: In the traditional medieval Islamic education system in India, Maktabs were institutions of primary/elementary learning (teaching reading, writing, and recitation), whereas Madrasas served as centers of higher learning for theological, judicial, and philosophical studies.
